FALLACY OF REPARATIONS

THE FALLACY OF REPARATIONS .

By: NN2N1 (additional editted 10-25-2024 and a step closer to final publication)

It is strongly felt some alternative and corrective facts needed to be presented for a clear overall picture of Reparations.  Seeing the certain Liberals, Socialists, Democrats and the all too common Race Pimps for profit, are using Reparations as a money making and Election tool. So before allowing Congress and some state governments to continue their political sham and abuse for self gain. Which clearly further will divide the nation, and waste more of our already abused and wasted Taxpayer money. I am presenting those missing facts.

 

Foreword

More than likely you have heard the phrase; “Forty acres and a mule” as related to Reparations. This document deals with what the crazy idea of Reparation is based on.

 

So where did all this Race Pandering, Baiting and Pimping ideas that surfaces every national election year to stir up certain voters come from? An never awarded pie in the sky that never happens, start?  So where did this semi-annual process of lies to emotionally stir up certain voters emotions. A concept so emotionally misleading that voters blindly forget they are supporting the same Political Party that just 3 generations ago was still openly supporting; Jim Crow Laws, Open Racial Discrimination, separate lunch counters and bathrooms. That used fire hoses, attack dogs and yes even lynchings to keep the Black-Americas under control. Well it was initially started by a Civil War Union Army General named William Tecumseh Sherman on or about January 16, 1865.  It was little more than a carrot on a stick offer, just like today.  He falsely made offers of free land and a mule to get free work out of recently freed slaves by the Union Army.  He knowingly made the promise without any authority, and it was only to motivate or entice freed slaves into becoming a overworked Free Labor Gang for him and his troops. His carrot on a stick had ZERO legality and it had NO official backing by the United States Government, Congress, the US Courts, or even President Lincoln.  It was just a statement made by a Union Army General, as his troops marched through the southeast, raping, murdering, stealing civilian food supplies and burning private properties. Which included the slaves the union troops freed or encountered along the way.

 

To Make It Clear For The Record.

NONE of the statements or promises made by Union Civil War General Sherman had any US Congressional authority, legal, nor budget authority to do so. Plus this was prior to the end of the Civil War. So this amounted to an invading nation giving away another nations property before a war ended and peace terms had been agreed on.

 

On top of this, President Lincoln and the still USA, in 1861, were initially resistant to freeing the slaves (see the Corwin Amendment aka Ghost Amendment) , because the North had it share of slave states like Delaware, Maryland, Kentucky, and Missouri. Which it was feared would be encouraged to join the Confederacy. (Yes in certain Northern States slavery was legal.)

 

Determining The Value Of “Forty acres And A Mule”,

Since this all revolves around a falsely made promise. I decided to take some time to research 1865 official and newspaper records in various libraries and other sources of the time period around the southeast. I found from  1865 to 1870 land valves were depressed and most of the plantations somehow ended up being “owned” by.... surprise! Northern Land and Real Estate Groups. So the valve of 40 Acres and a Mule was simple to document, given the well published selling prices at the time of the illegally promise was made:

 

• 1 acre of cleared and workable Farmland, depending on location, condition and etc. was selling for between $1.25 and $7.00

• A good broken in working Mule cost between $60 and $75.

So for this discussion, I used the higher figures to reduce the likelihood of some grasping for easy low hanging whining fruit. Thus the following was arrived at based on actual Newspaper auctions and advertisements for sales from 1865 to 1870 either viewed on old style microfiche or more modern digitized records.

 

1 ac. @ $7.00 x 40 acres = $280.00

1ea. working Mule age of 3 years of age = $75.00

Total high value = $355.00 in 1865 dollars

 

Then adjusting for inflation, by using several inflation adjustment programs easily located on the Internet and used by many in the Main Stream Media to figure current valves. So $355.00 in 1865 adjusted inflation for 2024, we arrived at $355 in 1865 is now worth $6,866.98 today.

 

NOTE: Understand this is not what it would cost to purchase “Forty acres and a mule” today. But what in 1865-1870 the $355.00 used to purchase 40 acres in 1865 would be worth today. Which is where I am sure a major legal discussion would be initially fought. Along with how lawyers would want the cash $$$$$ and would have clients that would never known how to BBQ a mule. ☺

 

So the 1865 amount of $355.00, would be equal to about $6,866.98 in 2024 US Dollars according to the popular US dollar inflation calculation app found on the Internet.

 

I bet a lot of people thought for a second that would be $6,866.98 for each person claiming the have a right to a Reparation. No, at best, that $6,866.98 would be divided among all surviving ancestry/relatives of that person from 160 years ago. Which might get divided 20+ times.  Plus, once paid, it ends and squares the Racial budget books, no more double dipping for any future generations. The Racial Budget Book is balance is paid and closed forever.

 

NOW THE DISCUSSION POINTS THE RACE PIMPS AND RACE BAITTERS HAVE AVOIDED .

 

To arrive at any total suggested earned Reparation payment figure, we must define who were from 1860-1865 slaves, and know the real number of slaves actually freed by the end of the Civil War of 1865.

 

Question:  Interesting to note in 1860 the South had more freed slaves than the North in 1860. Yes the South had 250,787 and the North only had 225,961. (source UNC. Library) An this is where it starts to get confusing. So now we have our first major issue:  Who really has US Civil War Slave ancestry? Despite the Northern General sentiments regarding slavery and having a smaller freed population than the South. The Southern Freed Slaves could have still migrated North or West. But mostly chose to remain in Southern slave states for various reasons. So being Black African in the South between 1860-1865 was not a guarantee of being a slave. In fact, roughly 1 in 16 Blacks were freemen living in the South between 1850 and 1865. Neither was being Black in the North a guarantee of being a freeman either. Since several Northern states had their share of legally owned slaves also. So being part of the roughly 14% of Black-Africans then in the USA is not a guarantee of having any Slave Ancestry between 1860-1865.  Interesting side note: the African American race in the USA, over 160 years still hoovers around 13 % to 14% of the US population. So should those that were previously Freed-man status receive Reparation Payments?

 

Question: Issue and Fact, surprisingly a large number of freed slaves went on to purchase their own slaves. Sometimes reclaiming their wives and families. But in many more cases purchasing their own slave laborers for work. So do we also count Black owned slaves, or only White and other races that owned slaves for Reparations? 

 

Question: Is it right to inject color of ownership as a qualifier or a discriminator for Reparations Payment?

 

Question: We also need to look at the issue that imported slavery was legal by United State Federal and State Laws from 1778-1808. An continued slavery was legal also for sometime after the Civil War until it was finally fully declared illegal.  How can any person be held responsible for issues that were legal and condoned for Federal Law? Laws that Congress itself approved of ? If so? Then think of how many people would go to jail every time a law changes and we held citizens guilty of violating something before it was declared illegal?

 

Question: Citing factual historical sources We know the importing of slaves into the United States was banned by Congress (under Constitutional command) in 1808. So should the proposed Reparation Act only cover slaves brought illegally into the USA after the 1808? While we are at it, what about the White forced indentured servants from 1600 to the 1930's. Should they be allowed to claim reparations from Taxpayers also?

 

Question: Fifty-two years after the 1808 importation ban. The 1860 US Census taken then showed of the 4.47 Million Black-African persons in the USA, with 3.9 Million as a slaves. So roughly about 500,000 (12.82%) were already freed and emancipated citizens. So should the already freed roughly 500,000 be covered by full, a percentage , or any Reparations at all?

 

Question: US population by the 1860 US Census was counted as 31,443,321. But exploded from 1890 to about the 1930 time-frame,  with over 11 Million NEW Immigrants coming to America. While they were mainly White European, that number also included other nationalities, Eurasian races and a range of colors. Statistically this means that 34.98% of New Americans and their offsprings, NEVER had anything to do with US Slavery. Since these new US immigrants and their Ancestry/Relatives did not engage in slave ownership. Why should they be held liable for Reparation related taxes?

 

Question: How will we, or can we legally tax every race except those with African ancestry?  Because even if Reparations where possible. Higher Taxes across the board will result.

 

Question:  Given the Union Army was already freeing of Southern Slaves, but not the salves in North states,  using the written, but not congressionally approved Presidential proclamation, called The Emancipation Proclamation of September 22, 1862. Which had no basis in international law and etc. Should only persons still in slavery between September 22, 1862 and the end of the Civil War be paid considered eligible for any possible shared Reparation award? Or only those after it was passed by the UNION Congress in Janurary 1863, almost 2 years after the Civil War started?

 

Question: Should citizens of States, Counties and Districts that had no slaves be required to pay taxes to cover the Reparations? Example: Richmond Co. Ga. had no Plantations, but Burke county Ga. did have 1 small 41 +/- slave plantation according a local newspaper sources. So why should US Citizens and their decedents that did not own slaves, or reside in slave holding areas pay a Reparation Tax? Or is this really just a “All White People are Bad ” tax? eg. The 2nd largest plantation in the USA was owned by S. Duncan and he had strong Northern Roots, owned a New York bank and various Northern business holding, even died and was buried in Philadelphia, Pennsylvania. 

 

Question:  Using the 1860 Census Figures

Total US Population	31,183,582
Total No. of Slaves	3,950,528
Total Free Population	27,233,198
Total No. of Slaveholders	393,975

Again the question still is numbers. Even if 8% owned 1 slave or more. Why is the other 92% of the population being forced to pay taxes to cover the misdeeds or deeds of the 8%?  Shouldn't the Richer, Wealthier Plantations Ancestry/descendants pay a adjustable tax rate based on the number slaves owned 160 years ago? BTW: the use of term "Deeds" covers those that purchased slaves, released them or let then work off their cost for freedom. That also went on to purchase and free other slaves themselves.

 

Question: What about those Freed Slaves that returned to Africa? In the 1830-1859 Mississippi Colonization Society and American Colonization Society both repatriated already freed blacks and newly freed slaves to the developing colony of Liberia on the African continent. So should the repatriated free blacks descendant get Reparations? Or, should those that repatriated the free blacks be required to pay the Reparation Tax?

 

Question: Why should any Union family descendant of slave free state, or any of the descendants of the Union's 2,128,948 military that fought and/or died between 1861-1865 be required to contribute to the Reparation Tax?

 

Question:  Since Reparations are said to make things right for things that happened over 160+/- years ago. Should only former slaves families that have not accepted Federal & State support already be allowed a reparation payment? Because many make a valid argument, since the Federal Government has long used the pockets of the US taxpayer trying to make amends for over the last 60+ years. Thus racking up over $4.3+ Trillion trying to “help” with financial assistance with some success. Should there be Reparations, or just continued Welfare support?  Plus, if Reparations are given should other Federal Aid to States be adjusted?

 

Question: Is it constitutionally legal to tax one generation for the problems caused by generations over 160 years ago? Stop and think of the can of legal worm holes this opens up.

 

Question:   As we now know, Not All, but large number of the slave ships that delivered their slave cargo to the USA were owned by Northern Businesses, and/or controlled by Northern shipping families. Also many Northern Land Companies bought up the Southern Farmlands owned by freed slaves and turned major profits in doing so. Should theses Northern Families and their descendants be required to kick in a major part in any possible payments? Should those family descendants have their entire wealth confiscated for what Great Great Grand Daddy did 160+ years ago?

 

Question:   As we factually know, rival African tribes and Western Muslim controlled areas captured and delivered the slaves to the West African seaports and sold them to brokers that then sold them others until they ended up in the USA or other nations.  Should those tribes and countries involved in the initial capture and transportation be required pay the majority of the Reparations? After all they were the suppliers of the slave trade? Because it has long been established under US Law that suppliers are more harshly treated than the middle men and actual user of illegal items. eg. USC sentencing guidelines in the War on Drugs.

 

Question: On September 1863, President Lincoln himself stated when he announced his plan to sell 60,000 acres of captured South Carolina land in lots of 320 acres, setting aside 16,000 acres of the land for "heads of families of the African race", who could obtain 20-acre lots sold at $1.25/acre. Which equaled 16000/20 = 800 homesteads @ $25 each) Yes!, you read that right. Under the White House official proposed plan, the freed slaves would have to PURCHASE the 20 acres at $1.25 per ac. ($25) Likely by share cropping over a period of several years, which was the custom in those days. So, was the final more official version of 40 AC and Mule,  NOT a handout, but work and earn it plan? Oh by the way that $25 in 1865 is worth $483.59 today.

 

Question: Records show that land redistribution did in fact occurred under military jurisdiction during the war and for a several years during re-construction thereafter. So how do we sort out and determine who or whom has already been paid, verses those that have not in one way or another?

 

Question: Why should the numerous 1800 to 1930's black communities and its residences that did maintain control of their land, and the black families that obtained new land by homesteading, be given Reparations?  It is a fact Black ownership of land steadily increased in even in Mississippi during the later 1870's to 1920's. We know from official records that Southern Blacks acquired land through private transactions, with ownership peaking at 15,000,000+ acres (yes that is 15 million acres) in 1910. Just before WWI started an a extended financial recession that caused problems, which resulted in the loss of both Black and White properties for many. With Northern Land Companies again where moving in an buying up land at pennies of the dollar.

 

Question: Given the US legal system usually divides Class Action lawsuit settlements based on actual victim status. So shouldn't any such settlement require proof of slave ancestry prior to 1866? Then also, shouldn't, like any legal settlement, require a final and full ancestry settlement document clause to avoid any future political abuses? Or is the political goal to do a Reparation every future generation, say on their 18th birthday?

 

SUMMARY:

Reparations are little more than an election year gimmick for Liberals, Socialists, and Democrats seeking minority votes. It blindly incites people for their political support and vote. All while, avoiding the fact, that the very political group hiding behind and using the Reparations sham for political gain, are the same political group, Democrats, that fought to keep Slavery, and then went on to pass 100's of Jim Crow Laws, for over 100 years after the Civil War.